Wednesday, August 31, 2016

Cis 115 week 3 lab decision calendar devry university

i L A B O V E R V I E WScenario/Summary

Your goal is to solve the following programming lab activity. Write a program that prompts and accepts a number between 1 and 12. After getting the input, display the number with the appropriate month. (example: This is the 1st month…January, This is the 2nd month…February, This is the 12th month…December).

Be sure to THINK about the logic and design first (IPO chart and/or pseudocode), then code the Visual Logic command line processing.

Deliverables Decision Calendar IPO Model Decision Calendar Pseudocode Decision Calendar Flowchart Decision Calendar Output Sample.

Course Home Work, CIS 255 Operating Systems Strayer , Home Work Tutorials, Home Work Solutions, Home Work Essay, Home Work Questions.ACC 565 Wk 7 Assignment 3, ACC403 week 2 assignment, ACC565 Week 10, ACCT 212 (Financial Accounting), ACCT 344 (Entire Course) – Devry, ACCT 344 Final Exam Latest 2014 – Devry, ACCT 346 (Managerial Accounting), ACCT 346 Midterm Exam Updated DeVry, ACCT 504, ACCT 504 Week 8, ACCT 553, ART 101 Week 8, Ashford BUS 401, ASHFORD BUS 640, Ashford HIS 204, ASHFORD MAT 222 Week 3, BA 215 (Business Statistics), BA 215 All Assignments Week 1 -8 – Grantham, BA 225, BA 260, BA 265 (Business Law II), BA 265 (Business Law II) FINAL EXAM, BA 340 All Course Assignments, BA 340 Human Resource, BA 370 (Employment Law), BA 405 Multinational Management, BA 470 Week 3 – 5 – 6 – 7, BA 470 Entrepreneurship, BA350 Principles Of Finance, BIS 155 Final Exam – DeVry, BIS 220 Final Exam, BSOP 429, BSOP 434 Entire Course – Devry, BUS 303 Week 2, BUS 303 Week 3, BUS 303 Week 5, BUS 311 Business Law, BUS 330 Week 1, BUS 330 Week 3, BUS 330 Week 5, BUS 401 Week 4 DQ 1, BUS 401 Week 4 DQ 2, BUS 402 WEEK 4, BUS 405 (Principles of Investment), BUS 475, BUS 475 Final Exam 100 MCQS, BUS 475 Final Exam 600 MCQS, BUS 599 (STRAYER), BUS 599 Assignment, BUS 620 Week 4, BUS 640 Week 1, BUS499 Asignment 4, BUS508 Asignment 1, BUS499 Assignment 3.

GET A QUICK QUOTE!

COURSE | EXAM | QUIZ | HOMEWORK | WRITING ASSIGNMENT | PROJECT

Psych 504 week 3 learning team quiz 2

PSYCH 504 Week 3 Learning Team Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1. Rogers' theory is primarily a theory of

A) the structure of personality.

B) the nature of psychology as a science.

C) the process of change.

D) psychopathology

2. Two main trends seen throughout Rogers' life are

A) a concern with the subjective-experiential and the objective-scientific.

B) concern with religion and philosophy.

C) concern with individuals and media.

D) concern with the correlational approach and the construct validity approach.

3. Rogers' theory of personality is associated with a particular view of human nature. That view is reflected in which of the following statements?

A) to the extent that people are as Freud pictured them they are neurotic.

B) human nature is basically negative.

C) self-actualization is essentially the same as Freud's concept of socialization.

D) people are basically sinful.

4. Which of the following statements does not accurately reflect an aspect of Rogers' theory of personality?

A) A person's phenomenological field is made up of both conscious and unconscious perceptions.

B) The most important determinants of behavior are those which are unconscious.

C) A person's phenomenological field is made up of both symbolized and unsymbolized perceptions.

D) The most important determinants of behavior are those which are symbolized.

5. The phenomenological approach emphasizes

A) feelings-experiences.

B) perceptions.

C) self-report measures.

D) all of the above.

1. Within the Rogerian framework, the neurotic person is a person

A) whose psychic energy is released indirectly through pathological behavior because direct expression of needs and drives would be too threatening to the self.

B) whose self-concept reflects nothing more than his organismic experience.

C) whose self-concept does not reflect accurately organismic experience.

D) both (a) and (b).

2. The concept of flow relates to

A) water pressure on the brain.

B) positive states of consciousness.

C) the effects of rewards on performance.

D) the pleasure of water sports.

3. According to self-determination theory

A) people are innately rebellious.

B) people function at their best performing out of anxiety.

C) people prefer freely chosen to compelled activities.

D) all of the above.

4. Rogers' attitude toward making differential diagnoses in psychopathology might be summed up in the following statement.

A) Differential diagnoses help a therapist to design individualized treatment programs.

B) Differential diagnoses are useful in that they help point out the individual's specific problem areas.

C) Differential diagnoses are relatively worthless as aids to psychotherapy.

D) None of the above.

5. Which is not a defense mentioned by Rogers?

A) distortion.

B) denial.

C) projection.

Psych 504 week 4 individual assignment phobia paper (little hans)

PSYCH 504 Week 4 Individual Assignment Phobia Paper (Little Hans)

For this assignment, you will choose from the following

options:

• Dog Phobia Paper

• Public Speaking Phobia Paper

• Little Hans Case Study

Read the University Material: Explaining Phobia

Paper located on the student website.

Psych 504 week 4 learning team quiz 3

PSYCH 504 Week 4 Learning Team Quiz 3

Quiz 3

1. As a scientist, Kelly viewed the person as

A) basically good.

B) basically active.

C) basically evil.

D) a "tabula rasa" (blank slate).

2. Kelly's view of the person as a scientist implies that the person as an organism is essentially

A) always trying to understand the present through an evaluation of the past.

B) always trying to understand the present through an evaluation of the present.

C) always trying to understand the past through an evaluation of the future.

D) always trying to understand the future through an evaluation of the present.

3. Within Kelly's cognitive theory of personality, the term "constructive alternativism" means

A) we have the ability to seek objective reality in many alternative ways.

B) when we are limited by objective reality we have the ability to express ourselves in alternative ways.

C) there is no objective reality - only alternative ways of constructing events.

D) none of the above.

4. People have many different notions about what the goals of science are. Kelly felt that the goal of science is

A) the development of construct systems that are helpful in anticipating events.

B) the discovery of truth.

C) the uncovering of things heretofore unknown.

D) none of the above.

5. Kelly suggested that a problem with psychologists is

A) they do not assume people act on the same basis they do.

B) they believe in absolute truths.

C) they reject the value of subjective, personal knowledge.

D) all of the above.

6. According to Kelly we are

A) free.

B) determined.

C) victims of the past or present.

D) depends on our construction of things.

7. According to Kelly, a theory has

A) reliability and validity.

B) loose and tight constructs.

C) a range of convenience and a focus of convenience.

D) all of the above.

8. For Kelly, theories are

A) part of the discovery of truth.

B) valid or invalid.

C) modifiable.

D) maintained until an inaccurate prediction.

Psych 504 week 5 individual assignment personality development paper

PSYCH 504 Week 5 Individual Assignment Personality development Paper

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper that examines the influences of traits—such as trait theory—and biology—such as temperament—on personality development. Answer the following questions in your paper:

• How does the gene-environment interaction influence personality?

• Is culture a factor in personality expression?

• What do twin studies show us about the inheritability of

personality?

• What characteristics of temperament are stable over time and contribute to our adult personality?

• Are specific characteristics consistent over situation and over time?

Include an explanation of how the following personality models may be adapted to account for variation in the

personal, societal, and cultural factors discussed in your paper:

• Biological model

• Five-factor trait theory

• Temperament model of personality

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Citations: Use a minimum of 5 Peer Reviewed Journal

Articles

Submit Certificate of Originality

Psy 435 week 1 individual industrial organizational psychology paper

PSY 435 Week 1 Individual Industrial Organizational Psychology Paper

Individual

Industrial/ Organizational Psychology Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you examine the fundamental concepts of the field of industrial/organizational psychology. In your examination, address the following items:

Describe the evolution of the field of industrial/organizational psychology.

Explain how industrial/organizational psychology is different from other disciplines of psychology.

Discuss how industrial/organization psychology can be used in organizations.

Explain the role of research and statistics in industrial/organizational psychology.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Hcis 410 week 3 work breakdown structure, part 1 (uop)

Resources: Week Three Excel Template and the Project Charter, Scope, and Work Breakdown Structure

Complete the Work Breakdown Structure, Part 1 assignment. Include the following:

Describe at least 8 major phases with at least 3 tasks under each phase.
Identify all of the work tasks needed to complete the project.
Provide an estimated duration of each task.
Identify all major milestones, such as completing each major phase.

Cite at least 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Bba 4951 business policy and strategy unit 2 essay

Over the course of this unit, we have discussed the importance of mission and vision statements. As a part of that
discussion, we analyzed mission and vision statements for their effectiveness. For the Unit II Essay, you will expand on
this topic.
Using your favorite search engine, research the mission and vision statements of different fortune 500 companies. Then,
you will write an essay in which you compare and contrast the mission statements of two companies and the vision
statements of two companies. You may use the same companies for both the mission and vision comparisons or separate
companies.
Within your essay, include the following:
 Explain the principle value of two vision statements.
 Explain the principle value of two mission statements.
 Compare and contrast vision statements of each organization in terms of composition and importance.
 Compare and contrast mission statements of each organization in terms of composition and importance.
 Do you think organizations that have comprehensive mission statements tend to be high performers? How do
mission and vision statements assist in selecting an industry-specific strategy?
 Explain why a mission statement should not include monetary amounts, numbers, percentages, ratios, goals, or
objectives.
Your essay should be a minimum of three pages in length or approximately 750 words, not including the title and
reference pages. You must also include an outside source from the CSU Online Library to support your explanations.
Follow APA standards for formatting and referencing.

GET A QUICK QUOTE!

COURSE | EXAM | QUIZ | HOMEWORK | WRITING ASSIGNMENT | PROJECT

Courses also available

Course Home Work, CIS 255 Operating Systems Strayer , Home Work Tutorials, Home Work Solutions, Home Work Essay, Home Work Questions.ACC 565 Wk 7 Assignment 3, ACC403 week 2 assignment, ACC565 Week 10, ACCT 212 (Financial Accounting), ACCT 344 (Entire Course) – Devry, ACCT 344 Final Exam Latest 2014 – Devry, ACCT 346 (Managerial Accounting), ACCT 346 Midterm Exam Updated DeVry, ACCT 504, ACCT 504 Week 8, ACCT 553, ART 101 Week 8, Ashford BUS 401, ASHFORD BUS 640, Ashford HIS 204, ASHFORD MAT 222 Week 3, BA 215 (Business Statistics), BA 215 All Assignments Week 1 -8 – Grantham, BA 225, BA 260, BA 265 (Business Law II), BA 265 (Business Law II) FINAL EXAM, BA 340 All Course Assignments, BA 340 Human Resource, BA 370 (Employment Law), BA 405 Multinational Management, BA 470 Week 3 – 5 – 6 – 7, BA 470 Entrepreneurship, BA350 Principles Of Finance, BIS 155 Final Exam – DeVry, BIS 220 Final Exam, BSOP 429, BSOP 434 Entire Course – Devry, BUS 303 Week 2, BUS 303 Week 3, BUS 303 Week 5, BUS 311 Business Law, BUS 330 Week 1, BUS 330 Week 3, BUS 330 Week 5, BUS 401 Week 4 DQ 1, BUS 401 Week 4 DQ 2, BUS 402 WEEK 4, BUS 405 (Principles of Investment), BUS 475, BUS 475 Final Exam 100 MCQS, BUS 475 Final Exam 600 MCQS, BUS 599 (STRAYER), BUS 599 Assignment, BUS 620 Week 4, BUS 640 Week 1, BUS499 Asignment 4, BUS508 Asignment 1, BUS499 Assignment 3.

Psy 496 week 4 dq 2 future identity development (ash)

Multicultural Issues
For this journal entry, you will clearly describe some of the significant influences on your identity development. As you reflect, please answer the following questions:

How has culture (gender, ethnicity, race, socioeconomic status, family values, etc.) impacted your identity, life experiences, and world views?
What major groups and cultures have contributed to your identity?
What stereotypes are embedded in your cultural experience?
How has your cultural identity influenced your interactions with individuals from other cultural, ethnic, and religious backgrounds?

The purpose of the journal activity is to allow you to thoroughly reflect upon what you have learned so far in your coursework and to provide you with an opportunity to relate this learning to your own experiences. The reflective journal is not a formal written assignment; however you are expected to adhere to conventional rules of grammar, sentence structure, spelling, and punctuation while focusing on clearly conveying your thoughts.

GET A QUICK QUOTE!

COURSE | EXAM | QUIZ | HOMEWORK | WRITING ASSIGNMENT | PROJECT

HSA 525 Health Financial Management Week 6 assignment Using Financial Ratios to Assess Organizational Performance

Hsa 525 health financial management week 6 assignment using financial ratios to assess organizational performance

Students, please view the "Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment" in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 2: Using Financial Ratios to Assess Organizational Performance
Due Week 6 and worth 240 points

Using the financial statements from your selected health care organization in Assignment 1, develop a financial plan for the next three (3) years.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

Suggest the financial ratio that most financial analysts would use to evaluate the financial condition of the company. Provide support for your rationale.
Speculate on the organization's ability to meet its financial obligations as they come due. Provide support for your rationale.
Based on your ratio analysis, determine whether the profitability trends are favorable or unfavorable and explain your rationale.
Using financial ratio analysis, predict whether or not the company will be viable in five (5) years based on its performance over the past three (3) years. Provide support for your prediction.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Tuesday, August 23, 2016

Sci 256 final exam guide

1.   According to the Environmental Science text, the environmental statement of the 1990s was “saving our planet”. Is earth's very survival really in danger?
A)   no, because in the long view, the changes humans have made to earth will be cleansed by natural processes
B)   no, because sustainability refers only to the next 2 generations of humans
C)   yes, because resources are becoming really sparse
D)   yes, because energy will run out
E)   none of these

2.   The total amount of food produced each year worldwide is sufficient to feed all the world's people today. Why do famines nevertheless occur?
A)   food production is insufficient in some local areas
B)   logging destroys agricultural land
C)   worldwide transportation of food is inadequate
D)   severe local shortage of firewood affects the ability to cook
E)   food production is insufficient in some local areas and worldwide transportation of food is inadequate

3.   An observation that is agreed upon by the majority of scientists is called a
A)   hypothesis
B)   controlled experiment
C)   technology
D)   theory
E)   fact

4.   Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps, from beginning to end, in the Scientific Method:
A)   hypothesis –> controlled experiment –> inferences –> conclusions
B)   conclusions –> controlled experiment –> observations –> hypothesis
C)   controlled experiment –> inferences –> deductive proof –> hypothesis
D)   observations –> hypothesis –> controlled experiment –> conclusions
E)   conclusions –> observations –> alter observations to fit conclusions –> future research grants and awards

5.   A chemical spill has occurred on the shore of a lake in an area where the underlying aquifer is widely used as a drinking water supply. The pollutants threaten to flow into both the surface water and the groundwater. The residence time of water in the lake is short, and the residence time in the groundwater is long. Which of the following statements is correct?
A)   pollutants will quickly invade the lake and will linger there the longest
B)   pollutants will quickly invade the groundwater and will linger there the longest
C)   pollutants will quickly invade the groundwater, but will linger longest in the lake
D)   pollutants will quickly invade the lake, but will linger longest in the groundwater
E)   there is no cause for alarm

6.   The region of the Earth where life exists is known as:
A)   the biota
B)   the crust
C)   the biosphere
D)   the biozone
E)   Gaia

7.   Epidemic diseases include all of the following except:
A)   influenza
B)   measles
C)   cholera
D)   cancer
E)   plague

8.   Decreased death rate and the accelerated rate of human population growth are related to:       I. improved sanitation and health
   II. increased food supply
   III. control of disease-spreading organisms
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I, II and III

9.   Which of the following cycles involves the movement of water from the surface of the Earth through the atmosphere back to the surface of the Earth?
A)   carbon cycle
B)   nitrogen cycle
C)   hydrologic cycle
D)   geological cycle
E)   biochemical cycle

10.   The substance with the greatest significance for the global carbonate-silicate cycle is:
A)   limestone
B)   carbon dioxide
C)   quartz minerals
D)   water
E)   fossil fuels

11.   According to the Environmental Science text, an ecosystem:
A)   introduces life to the environment
B)   is the smallest system that includes and sustains life
C)   is a set of interacting species that occur at the same place
D)   is equivalent to an ecological community
E)   is equivalent to an ecological community but excludes natural resources

12.   Which of the following statements is true about omnivores?
A)   omnivores only feed on dead animals
B)   omnivores feed on several on trophic levels
C)   omnivores feed on dead organic material
D)   omnivores are aquatic animals that feed on algae
E)   omnivores bacteria using chemosynthesis for food production

13.   In the open ocean, the first trophic level is composed primarily of:
A)   small fish
B)   zooplankton
C)   whales
D)   mussels
E)   phytoplankton

14.   Firewood is the primary source of fuel for cooking and heating in many cultures. Approximately what percentage of the world's total energy use involves firewood?
A)   25%
B)   20%
C)   15%
D)   10%
E)   5%

15.   Gradual, sequential changes in the composition of an ecosystem, particularly following an initial disturbance is called:
A)   tolerance
B)   succession
C)   facilitation
D)   interference
E)   reforestation

16.   Since the extensive fires in Yellowstone National Park in 1988, the park often has been cited as an example of the connection between forest fire and natural succession. An important part of understanding the danger of wildfire in Yellowstone is understanding its history. From the time of the founding of the park in 1872 until 1963, what was the policy regarding wildfires?
A)   to suppress all fires
B)   to allow all fires started naturally to burn naturally
C)   park officials set annual control burns
D)   seasonal control – suppress fires during the tourist season
E)   to allow fires in areas with species that need fire to reproduce

17.   What is the most important cause of starvation worldwide?
A)   droughts
B)   inadequate distribution of food resources
C)   floods
D)   global warming
E)   genetically engineered crops replacing local crops

18.   Aquaculture refers to:
A)   the production of flood-resistant crops
B)   the production of rice and other water-growing crops
C)   the production of aquatic animals for food
D)   open-ocean fishing
E)   the development of coastal tourist resorts

19.   Deserts occur naturally where:
A)   there is low temperature and low rainfall throughout the year
B)   there is too little water for substantial plant growth
C)   overgrazing removes water-holding vegetation
D)   sand supply exceeds the ability of wind to transport it away
E)   there is insufficient soil to grow plants

20.   What is the main reason that DDT is still being used in large areas of the world?
A)   need to maximize crop yields in populous developing countries
B)   coercion by U.S. chemical manufacturers
C)   the chemical breaks down in tropical climates to a benign form
D)   pests have developed a resistance to it
E)   to combat malaria

21.   Which of the terms below refers to the phenomenon in which many species escape from a cut area and seek refuge in the border of the forest:
A)   subsistence use
B)   shelterwood cutting
C)   selective cutting
D)   edge effect
E)   rotation use

22.   The most fundamental difference between a park and a true wilderness area is:
A)   a park is managed
B)   a park has defined boundaries
C)   conservation of species takes place
D)   fewer species are found in a park
E)   human access is excluded in wilderness areas

23.   As people clear land and modify the environment, species which _____ are especially vulnerable to extinction.
A)   are generalists
B)   have highly specific habitats
C)   are mammals
D)   can adapt to a different environment
E)   live in diverse ecosystems

24.   Carrying capacity is the:
A)   largest-sized individual that can survive in a given ecosystem
B)   maximum number of a species that an environment can support without degradation to the environment
C)   maximum number of a species that can live in an environment without competition among individuals
D)   maximum number of a species confined to a specific area
E)   variety of species that can live in one habitat without going extinct

25.   Which of the following are the three main energy sources used in the U.S?
A)   petroleum, coal, and nuclear
B)   wood, petroleum, and nuclear
C)   hydroelectric, natural gas, and coal
D)   coal, gasoline, and nuclear
E)   petroleum, natural gas, and coal

26.   The majority of Earth's energy input comes from:
A)   geothermal heat from the Earth's interior
B)   the Earth's albedo
C)   sunlight
D)   combustion of fossil fuels
E)   photolysis of ozone in the stratosphere

27.   _________ is an example of a fossil fuel; _________ is an example of an alternative energy source; and _________ is an example of a renewable energy source:
A)   coal; nuclear; solar
B)   nuclear; solar; natural gas
C)   nuclear; natural gas; hydroelectric
D)   petroleum; solar; coal
E)   hydroelectric; wind; solar

28.   The Alaska National Wildlife Refuge (ANWR) has made headlines because of:
A)   it is the leading source of coal in North America
B)   proposals to explore for oil there
C)   it is the proposed site for disposal of high-level nuclear waste
D)   the Exxon Valdez oil spill occurred there
E)   further oil migration there is blocked by a trap

29.   Which of the following is the strongest argument in favor of pollution allowance trading:
A)   it involves the greatest change in the existing marketplace
B)   it is the best way to reduce or eliminate all local pollution problems
C)   it is the option favored by the Sierra Club and other wilderness groups
D)   individual businesses are given a range of options for complying with the law
E)   allowance trading creates the greatest government control of pollution emissions

30.   Oil is:
A)   organic matter transformed into liquid and gaseous hydrocarbons
B)   inorganic matter transformed into liquid hydrocarbons
C)   bituminous coals transformed into liquid and gaseous hydrocarbons
D)   a variety of natural gases compressed by pressure
E)   organic particles in water

31.   Which of the following terms refers to energy produced from any source other than fossil fuels:
A)   power tower
B)   alternative energy
C)   fuel cell
D)   biofuel
E)   renewable energy

32.   What is geothermal energy?
A)   a thermal spring
B)   heat energy in the core of the earth
C)   the rate of temperature increase with depth in the Earth
D)   heat derived from a geothermal power plant
E)   useful conversion of natural heat from the interior of the Earth

33.   What one factor, more than others, determines the suitability of tidal power for a coastal site?
A)   the cost of building the plant
B)   sediment supply and transport
C)   the frequency of tides
D)   large tidal range
E)   size and frequency of storm events

34.   The worst accident in the history of commercial nuclear power happened in 1986 at Chernobyl, where a uranium fuel meltdown occurred. According to the Environmental Science text, in the next 20 to 30 years, there will be an increase in cancer:
A)   worldwide
B)   in the northern hemisphere
C)   in northern Europe
D)   within 100-200 km of the reactor side
E)   in workers at the plant the day of the accident

35.   The Energy Policy Act of 2005 considered the role of nuclear power in the U.S. energy mix. Its recommendation was to:
A)   resume building new nuclear power plants in the U.S.
B)   halt to construction of all new nuclear power plants in the U.S.
C)   temporarily hold construction of new nuclear power plants until the Yucca Mountain site is operational
D)   transition from fission to fusion power
E)   replace all existing nuclear reactors in the U.S. by pebble-bed reactors by 2010

36.   What is an aquifer?
A)   a canal or system to transport water over long distances
B)   a zone of hot, pressurized groundwater
C)   a rock that holds and transmits water
D)   a rock in which permeability is low
E)   the area of a drainage basin which recharges water into the system

37.   “Instream use” refers to:
A)   water removed from a river and eventually returned to the river
B)   use for agricultural purposes
C)   evaporation during transport in pipes or canals
D)   use by cities or agriculture in the close vicinity of the river
E)   uses of the river or lake itself, without removing water

38.   Desalination is a promising source of water for some locations because:
A)   desalinated water can be delivered at a lower cost than many water sources
B)   desalination produces water purer than surface water and approaching the purity of groundwater
C)   desalination requires less energy than transporting water over long distances
D)   desalination is a potential water source for even the most arid coastal area
E)   all of these

39.   The amount of phosphorus and nitrogen in groundwater probably would be greatest:
A)   in undisturbed forest land
B)   in agricultural land in the developed world
C)   in agricultural land in the developing world
D)   downhill from a petroleum refinery
E)   downhill from an urban population center

40.   According to the Environmental Science text, what is the most critical water pollution problem in the world?
A)   lack of clean, disease-free drinking water
B)   thermal pollution
C)   municipal sewage
D)   sediment polluted waters
E)   industrial effluent

41.   During the last two million years or so, the climate of the Earth has:
A)   been very nearly constant
B)   swung sharply both up and down in temperature
C)   slowly decreased in humidity
D)   slowly increased in temperature
E)   seen a steady decrease in precipitation worldwide

42.   Large volcanic eruptions appear to make the Earth's climate _________, at least temporarily.
A)   drier
B)   more stormy
C)   wetter
D)   cooler
E)   less stormy

43.   Carbon monoxide is particularly dangerous to humans because:
A)   it damages the nervous system
B)   low concentrations affect healthy and sickly people equally
C)   its deleterious effects increase with decreasing altitude
D)   it prevents O2 from reaching vital tissues
E)   all of these

44.   Atmospheric inversion conditions over urban areas pose a problem primarily because:
A)   the conditions are conducive to photochemical smog
B)   pollutants are trapped and concentrated
C)   the inhabitants can be cut off from oxygen
D)   many sensitive plants and animals freeze to death
E)   CFCs are concentrated and destroy protective ozone

45.   This is an ailment caused by long-term exposure to air with high concentrations of soot or carbon-rich dust:
A)   formaldehyde
B)   sick building syndrome
C)   chimney effect
D)   black lung disease
E)   radon

46.   The number of deaths caused by lung cancer due to exposure to radon is comparable to the number of deaths caused by ______________ in the U.S. each year.
A)   plane crashes
B)   lightening
C)   car accidents
D)   volcanic eruptions
E)   old age

47.   The field of environmental economics seeks to:
A)   find the most effective way to achieve rational solutions for environmental problems
B)   treat environmental problems no matter how expensive they might be
C)   solve environmental problems by government fiscal policies
D)   understand the purpose of scientific and technical solutions to environmental problems
E)   bear the burden and the cost of environmental catastrophes

48.   Many natural organisms and ecosystems perform service functions that are beneficial to humans. These include all of the following except:
A)   bees pollinating crops
B)   bacteria fixing nitrogen in the ocean
C)   salt marshes convert toxic compounds to nontoxic forms
D)   biological degradation of toxic material applied to land
E)   water in the atmosphere combines with sulfurous pollutants and rains to the ground

49.   Before modern sanitation and medicine, a major control on population density in European cities (and cities elsewhere) was:
A)   cockroaches in kitchens, which limited the food supply
B)   termites, which damaged wooden houses
C)   fleas, which carried infectious diseases
D)   pigeons, which spread excrement
E)   mice and rats

50.   Love Canal, near Niagara Falls, New York, illustrates which of the following principles or problems?
A)   disposal of hazardous chemical waste in an uncontrolled site
B)   economic mineral reserves from sewage sludge
C)   wild species re-establishing themselves in an urban setting
D)   poor understanding of flood hazard
E)   the difficulty in finding new solid waste sites as old dumps are filled to capacity

GET A QUICK QUOTE!

COURSE | EXAM | QUIZ | HOMEWORK | WRITING ASSIGNMENT | PROJECT